To me one of the craziest aspects of the whole AIDS thing is how it's supposed to have spread like wildfire through African populations, with the inference that these same groups of people are so wildly indescriminantly sexual, like barbarians of some sort, that they're being decimated by 'HIV'. Meanwhile, the white heterosexual people of the west are largely unaffected owing to their implied more puritan ways.
This assumption also posits that African Americans in the West are far more sexually uncontrolled than their white counterparts. It's racist at its core.
I've read most African woman test positive during their pregnant stage and treatment is given immediately and in some cases their partners test negative that is what is puzzling me
The 'HIV' antibody tests react along ethnic/racial lines. This has been known for a long time. From least to most reactive, Asian, Caucasian, Hispanic, African American. It's been assumed this was because of differences in sexual activity among the groups. But that's racist at its core assuming one group is more debased than the other in a sense. The antibody tests react to 'resting antibody' levels. African Americans for whatever physiological reason have higher resting antibody levels than other groups which increases likelyhood of nonspecific reactions. But it's assumed the tests are showing transmission.
The Perth Group have proven the non-specific nature of these tests.
36 years without ARVs wow your story need some kind of attention, Rebecca must do an interview with you, maybe you carry the solution to the world problem, maybe there is something In your genes
Like the Esparanza patient who naturally cured her self after 8 years of diagnosis, I would real love to hear your daily health routine,
Is this not based on prevalence of HIV among those groups, compare to White Americans maybe more research should be done to find out why black and Hispanic people test positive more than White people one reason why there's more black people HIV positive in South Africa is the test because every black person in South Africa is a potential carrier as compared to their white opposite.
In South Africa more Black woman test positive during their pregnancy
If testing is focused on a particular population that is the population where what is being tested for will appear to be more prominent. If hiv testing were focused and forced on more white, heterosexual Americans more “hiv” would be found among white heterosexual Americans be the non-specific biological markers considered synonymous with infection will be found NOT MAKING PEOPLE SICK.
To me one of the craziest aspects of the whole AIDS thing is how it's supposed to have spread like wildfire through African populations, with the inference that these same groups of people are so wildly indescriminantly sexual, like barbarians of some sort, that they're being decimated by 'HIV'. Meanwhile, the white heterosexual people of the west are largely unaffected owing to their implied more puritan ways.
This assumption also posits that African Americans in the West are far more sexually uncontrolled than their white counterparts. It's racist at its core.
I've read most African woman test positive during their pregnant stage and treatment is given immediately and in some cases their partners test negative that is what is puzzling me
Pregnancy is one of the many conditions that cause 'false positives'. Have you read the Perth Groups paper about the Western Blot? http://theperthgroup.com/SCIPAPERS/EPENatBioTech1993.pdf
It's
It's amazing 39 years down the line no clear
All I'm saying the test might detect something more common among those groups compare to White population, not necessarily there's a racial motivation
The 'HIV' antibody tests react along ethnic/racial lines. This has been known for a long time. From least to most reactive, Asian, Caucasian, Hispanic, African American. It's been assumed this was because of differences in sexual activity among the groups. But that's racist at its core assuming one group is more debased than the other in a sense. The antibody tests react to 'resting antibody' levels. African Americans for whatever physiological reason have higher resting antibody levels than other groups which increases likelyhood of nonspecific reactions. But it's assumed the tests are showing transmission.
The Perth Group have proven the non-specific nature of these tests.
Without purified isolate of hiv to establish Gold Standard diagnostic what exactly are the tests testing for?
Was there any virus ever isolated
Nope. It is all just theory.
36 years without ARVs wow your story need some kind of attention, Rebecca must do an interview with you, maybe you carry the solution to the world problem, maybe there is something In your genes
Like the Esparanza patient who naturally cured her self after 8 years of diagnosis, I would real love to hear your daily health routine,
With your story it's further confusing the HIV is not clear cut
Is this not based on prevalence of HIV among those groups, compare to White Americans maybe more research should be done to find out why black and Hispanic people test positive more than White people one reason why there's more black people HIV positive in South Africa is the test because every black person in South Africa is a potential carrier as compared to their white opposite.
In South Africa more Black woman test positive during their pregnancy
Perhaps because in South Africa more Black women than white women are tested during pregnancy?
Not only during pregnancy but in general
Perhaps because of the fact that there are more black women than there are white women.
Yes
If testing is focused on a particular population that is the population where what is being tested for will appear to be more prominent. If hiv testing were focused and forced on more white, heterosexual Americans more “hiv” would be found among white heterosexual Americans be the non-specific biological markers considered synonymous with infection will be found NOT MAKING PEOPLE SICK.